Monday, February 20, 2012

Who are the real chosen people?

" The Lord spoke to Moses, saying, But as for you, speak to the sons of Israel, saying, ' You shall surely observe My Shabbats; for this is a sign between Me and you throughout your generations, that you may know that I am the Lord who sanctifies you,  Therefore you are to observe the Shabbat, for it is holy to you. Everyone who profanes it shall surely be put to death; for whoever does any work on it, that person shall be cut off from among his people.  For six days work may be done, but on the seventh day there is a Shabbat of complete rest, holy to the Lord; whoever does any work on the Shabbat day shall surely be put to death."

I have been wondering, since according to BE and "Divine Invitation," Gentile believers are not a part of the people, therefore they cannot be cut off from the people...Gentiles 1--Jews 0.

Since Gentiles are not a part of the people, and not to do any work on Shabbat is a Jewish thing, Gentiles don't get to be put to death....Gentiles 2----Jews 0.

Since "there is a shabbat of complete rest" for the Jews only, Gentiles are not restricted and can do any heavy recreational activity...Gentiles 3--Jews 0.

What a deal....

I am starting to understand why FFOZ made the switch.

Wait..We can apply the same principle to eating pork...Gentiles get to have a ham sandwich...No problem...  Biblically Kosher?....

Not for nothing did Yeshua say: "Therefore all that they tell you, do and observe, but do not do according to their deeds; for they say things, and do not do them."


  1. "Gentiles 3----Jews 0"

    Dan, that's funny!I wrote a similar post about all the advantages of being a Gentile (that I could think of at the time) here:

    What advantage has a Gentile? Much in every way…

  2. NOTE: This is purely said Tongue in Cheek.

    "behemah" 0, Gentiles 3---- Jews 0

    So according to the reasoning behind Divine Invitation, "the Goy/gentiles" - would be considered a little lower than the the oxen, the donkey and the cattle - since those livestock are prohibited from working on Shabbos as well. Devarim 5:14

    Perhaps their is a psak that I am unfamiliar with in regards to "Shabbos behemah". Perhaps it is only descendants of the livestock that were part of the exodus and not any of the hybridized goy cattle in the Galus.

    Are Cattle that work on Shabbos - are they still biblically kosher to eat? Perhaps a "Shmurah Behemah" hechsher is in order to guard against eating of Behemah that worked on Shabbos, but that would definitely involve a trustworthy Shabbos goy. ;). What's the disposition of the cattle that do work on Shabbos, can the meat only be sold to a "ish nochri," or can we give to a goy?

    All Silliness aside - a far more serious implication of "divine invitation" psak.

    Mar 2:27 And He said to them, "The Sabbath was made for man, and not man for the Sabbath.

    Not for nothing Yeshua, In Mark 2:27 obliterates any racial distinction of who the Sabbath was made for, He even removes the animals from the equation and the refence, as well as the class, and familial position - from the words Yeshua uses it sounds very much like it is not just for Klal Yisorel.

    The Greek word Yeshua uses is ἄνθρωπος ánthrōpos - the Human Race collective inclusive of male and female.

    Oy vey! Even Rav Shaul employs the same word in Gal 5:3 - why does Rav Shaul employ the same "human race" word - when bris milah obviously only refers to an ἀνήρ or "aner " "Males as distinguished from females" unless it is intentional obfuscation by the translators.

    Could such a learned man who sat at the feet of Gamaliel make such a mistake in word choice? It almost sounds like Rav Shaul is making the argument for One law not just for the Gentiles, but for B'nai Adom of those who are spiritually circumcised, since the only way that women(human race)are circumcised as a part of Klal Yisroel is spiritual circumcision of the lev.

    A side note on this passage in Mk 2; Mt. 12; Lu.6- while most miss the underlying judgment of those that instruct others in the violation of Torah, it was aimed at the Pharisees - those that did make psakim in regards to Torah commands - rendering a oral interpretation on the Torah commands. Ahimelech rendered that Klei Kodeshim of Dawid and his young men permitted them to eat the haKadosh Lechem. In effect he was changing the Torah, and saying that the haKodesh Lechem was hachol lechem. Ahimelech changed the Torah commandment about who may eat the bread of the Presence, further contemptuous attitude and dishonoring Hashem by b'nai Eli HaKohen Lev 10:10, Lev 22:9-10;15-16; Lev 24:5-9

    Yeshua makes a distinction of profaning the Temple by obedience to Torah by the Kohen and by profaning it by changing the Torah either by word or deed. Yeshua poignantly points outs to the pharisees that "Abiathar the HaKohen" - who was by default "HaKohen" because Doeg murdered 85 priests from Nob - including Ahimelech - the guilty party. Yet, David was found guiltless of eating the bread of the presence but the priest paid with their lives. This was a partial-fulfillment of the curse on B'nai Eli Hakohen 1 Sam 3:13-14

    This is something that the Pharisees would have been well aware of, yet it is often over-looked.